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Proof of the Pigeon-hole principle
Show Thm*m,k:, f:(mk). k<m (x,y:m. xy & f(x) = f(y)).
That is, putting a finite collection of m objects into fewer pigeon-holes (k<m) means there are two distinct objects put into the same hole. Without loss of generality it is enough that
x:m, y:x. f(x) = f(y)
i.e. that the second object y precedes the first object x. By a lemma